[{"data":1,"prerenderedAt":1150},["ShallowReactive",2],{"STORED_CATEGORIES":3,"content-/free-nclex-practice-questions":145,"related_posts__free-nclex-practice-questions":1131},{"tips":4,"features":27,"mccqe":44,"updates":61,"nclex":78,"resources":95,"tutorials":111,"usmle":128},{"id":5,"title":6,"body":7,"description":14,"extension":15,"meta":16,"name":20,"navigation":21,"path":22,"seo":23,"slug":24,"stem":25,"__hash__":26},"categories/categories/astuces.md","Astuces",{"type":8,"value":9,"toc":10},"minimark",[],{"title":11,"searchDepth":12,"depth":12,"links":13},"",2,[],"Tips for medical students and IMGs preparing for medical licensing 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AllQbanks.",{"uri":70,"categoryId":71,"parentId":19},"/allqbanks/blog/category/updates/","3","Updates","/categories/mises-a-jour",{"description":68},"updates","categories/mises-a-jour","hG_sOU7ROAh3OB-gEtM6bnK_D6OxLXfWaiSFsrQ5j5U",{"id":79,"title":80,"body":81,"description":85,"extension":15,"meta":86,"name":89,"navigation":21,"path":90,"seo":91,"slug":92,"stem":93,"__hash__":94},"categories/categories/nclex.md","Nclex",{"type":8,"value":82,"toc":83},[],{"title":11,"searchDepth":12,"depth":12,"links":84},[],"NCLEX-RN and NCLEX-PN study guides, practice questions, prep course reviews, and exam tips for nursing 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students",{"uri":137,"categoryId":138,"parentId":19},"/allqbanks/blog/category/usmle/","9","USMLE","/categories/usmle",{"description":135},"usmle","categories/usmle","aPIIj-JC1dBCQtAb17YgIP5CyDHddvUdq9CLGzx4Lk8",{"id":146,"title":147,"author":148,"author_slug":149,"body":150,"categories":1116,"date":1117,"date_mod":1117,"description":1118,"extension":15,"featured":21,"featured_image":1119,"featured_image_alt_text":1120,"meta":1121,"navigation":21,"path":1125,"seo":1126,"sitemap":1127,"stem":1128,"tags":1129,"updatedAt":1129,"__hash__":1130},"content/content/free-nclex-practice-questions.md","Free NCLEX Practice Questions with Rationales [2026]","AllQbanks Team","allqbanks-team",{"type":8,"value":151,"toc":1073},[152,156,194,199,202,207,222,225,229,234,237,240,283,287,290,293,328,332,335,338,375,377,381,385,388,391,427,431,434,437,473,477,480,483,518,520,524,528,531,534,569,573,576,579,614,616,620,624,627,630,665,669,672,675,710,712,716,720,723,726,761,765,768,771,806,808,812,816,819,822,857,859,863,867,870,873,908,910,914,918,921,924,959,961,965,976,987,991,1027,1035,1037,1041,1045,1048,1052,1055,1059,1066,1070],[153,154,155],"p",{},"Practice questions with rationales are the fastest way to prepare for the NCLEX-RN. These free questions cover all 8 client needs categories and match the difficulty level of the actual exam. Each answer includes a full explanation of why the correct choice is right and why each distractor is wrong.",[157,158,159,165],"blockquote",{},[153,160,161],{},[162,163,164],"strong",{},"Key Takeaways",[166,167,168,180,183,186],"ul",{},[169,170,171,172,179],"li",{},"Free NCLEX-RN practice questions organized by the ",[173,174,178],"a",{"href":175,"rel":176},"https://www.ncsbn.org/nclex.page",[177],"nofollow","NCSBN"," client needs framework.",[169,181,182],{},"Every question includes detailed rationales for correct and incorrect answers.",[169,184,185],{},"Difficulty matches the real exam — these are not dumbed-down review questions.",[169,187,188,189,193],{},"Use these to study by topic, then move to a ",[173,190,192],{"href":191},"/nclex-practice-test","full-length practice test"," for exam simulation.",[195,196,198],"h2",{"id":197},"how-to-use-these-questions","How to Use These Questions",[153,200,201],{},"Don't just check if you got it right. Read every rationale — for every question — even the ones you answered correctly. The NCLEX doesn't test whether you memorized the right answer. It tests whether you can reason through the clinical scenario. The rationale teaches you the reasoning pattern.",[153,203,204],{},[162,205,206],{},"Study protocol:",[208,209,210,213,216,219],"ol",{},[169,211,212],{},"Answer each question without looking at the rationale",[169,214,215],{},"After answering, open the rationale and read it completely",[169,217,218],{},"If you got it wrong, write down the concept you missed",[169,220,221],{},"Revisit missed concepts after completing each section",[223,224],"hr",{},[195,226,228],{"id":227},"management-of-care-questions","Management of Care Questions",[230,231,233],"h3",{"id":232},"question-1","Question 1",[153,235,236],{},"A charge nurse is delegating tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate to delegate to the UAP?",[153,238,239],{},"A. Administering oral medications to a stable patient\nB. Performing a focused respiratory assessment on a post-operative patient\nC. Measuring and recording intake and output for a patient with heart failure\nD. Removing a urinary catheter per provider order",[241,242,243,249,254,257,277],"details",{},[244,245,246],"summary",{},[162,247,248],{},"Answer and Rationale",[153,250,251],{},[162,252,253],{},"Correct Answer: C",[153,255,256],{},"Measuring and recording intake and output (I&O) is a task within the UAP's scope of practice. It involves collecting and documenting data — not interpreting or acting on it. The nurse retains responsibility for evaluating the I&O data and intervening if values are abnormal.",[166,258,259,265,271],{},[169,260,261,264],{},[162,262,263],{},"A"," — Administering oral medications requires a license (LPN or RN scope). UAPs cannot administer medications.",[169,266,267,270],{},[162,268,269],{},"B"," — Assessment is an RN-only function. LPNs may collect focused data, but interpreting assessment findings and making clinical judgments is the RN's role.",[169,272,273,276],{},[162,274,275],{},"D"," — Removing a urinary catheter is an invasive procedure that requires nursing judgment and is outside the UAP's scope.",[153,278,279,282],{},[162,280,281],{},"Category:"," Management of Care — Delegation",[230,284,286],{"id":285},"question-2","Question 2",[153,288,289],{},"A nurse is caring for a patient who speaks limited English. An interpreter is not immediately available. The patient's adult child, who is fluent in English, offers to interpret. What should the nurse do?",[153,291,292],{},"A. Accept the offer and proceed with the assessment\nB. Wait for a professional interpreter before continuing care\nC. Use a hospital-approved telephone interpreter service\nD. Speak slowly and use hand gestures to communicate directly",[241,294,295,299,303,306,323],{},[244,296,297],{},[162,298,248],{},[153,300,301],{},[162,302,253],{},[153,304,305],{},"A telephone interpreter service provides qualified medical interpretation and protects patient confidentiality. Family members should not be used as interpreters because they may filter, minimize, or misinterpret medical information. They may also have personal biases that affect translation accuracy.",[166,307,308,313,318],{},[169,309,310,312],{},[162,311,263],{}," — Family interpreters create risks: they may not understand medical terminology, they may edit information based on family dynamics, and it violates patient confidentiality standards.",[169,314,315,317],{},[162,316,269],{}," — Waiting delays care. A telephone interpreter service is immediately accessible and eliminates the wait.",[169,319,320,322],{},[162,321,275],{}," — Hand gestures and slow speech are insufficient for medical communication and create a high risk of misunderstanding.",[153,324,325,327],{},[162,326,281],{}," Management of Care — Patient Rights and Communication",[230,329,331],{"id":330},"question-3","Question 3",[153,333,334],{},"A nurse receives report on four patients at the beginning of the shift. Which patient should the nurse assess first?",[153,336,337],{},"A. A patient with chronic kidney disease whose potassium level is 5.8 mEq/L\nB. A patient 2 days post-appendectomy with a temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)\nC. A patient with type 2 diabetes whose fasting blood glucose is 145 mg/dL\nD. A patient with a hip fracture who rates pain at 6/10",[241,339,340,344,349,352,370],{},[244,341,342],{},[162,343,248],{},[153,345,346],{},[162,347,348],{},"Correct Answer: A",[153,350,351],{},"A potassium of 5.8 mEq/L (normal: 3.5–5.0) is hyperkalemia and poses an immediate risk of fatal cardiac arrhythmias. This patient needs urgent assessment, continuous cardiac monitoring, and intervention (calcium gluconate, insulin with glucose, or sodium polystyrene sulfonate). This is the most life-threatening finding.",[166,353,354,359,365],{},[169,355,356,358],{},[162,357,269],{}," — A low-grade fever at 99.2°F on post-op day 2 is expected and often related to atelectasis. It's not emergent.",[169,360,361,364],{},[162,362,363],{},"C"," — A fasting glucose of 145 is mildly elevated for a diabetic patient and requires monitoring but is not immediately dangerous.",[169,366,367,369],{},[162,368,275],{}," — Pain at 6/10 after a hip fracture is expected and needs management but is not life-threatening.",[153,371,372,374],{},[162,373,281],{}," Management of Care — Prioritization (ABCs + Lab Criticals)",[223,376],{},[195,378,380],{"id":379},"pharmacological-and-parenteral-therapies-questions","Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions",[230,382,384],{"id":383},"question-4","Question 4",[153,386,387],{},"A nurse is preparing to administer IV potassium chloride (KCl) 20 mEq in 100 mL of normal saline. Which action is essential before starting the infusion?",[153,389,390],{},"A. Verify the patient's most recent potassium level\nB. Administer a test dose over 5 minutes\nC. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor\nD. Both A and C",[241,392,393,397,402,405,422],{},[244,394,395],{},[162,396,248],{},[153,398,399],{},[162,400,401],{},"Correct Answer: D",[153,403,404],{},"IV potassium requires both a current potassium level and cardiac monitoring. A potassium level confirms the patient needs replacement (avoiding hyperkalemia). Cardiac monitoring detects arrhythmias caused by potassium shifts — both hypokalemia and rapid correction can cause fatal dysrhythmias.",[166,406,407,412,417],{},[169,408,409,411],{},[162,410,263],{}," — Correct but incomplete. Verifying the level alone does not address the cardiac monitoring requirement.",[169,413,414,416],{},[162,415,269],{}," — There is no \"test dose\" protocol for IV KCl. This is not standard nursing practice.",[169,418,419,421],{},[162,420,363],{}," — Correct but incomplete. Cardiac monitoring alone does not confirm the clinical need for potassium replacement.",[153,423,424,426],{},[162,425,281],{}," Pharmacological Therapies — IV Medication Safety",[230,428,430],{"id":429},"question-5","Question 5",[153,432,433],{},"A patient is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) 5 mg PO daily. The nurse reviews the patient's dietary intake and notes increased consumption of spinach and kale. What should the nurse teach the patient?",[153,435,436],{},"A. Avoid all green leafy vegetables while taking warfarin\nB. Maintain a consistent daily intake of vitamin K-containing foods\nC. Take a vitamin K supplement to counteract the warfarin\nD. Double the warfarin dose when eating high vitamin K foods",[241,438,439,443,448,451,468],{},[244,440,441],{},[162,442,248],{},[153,444,445],{},[162,446,447],{},"Correct Answer: B",[153,449,450],{},"The key teaching for warfarin patients is consistency, not avoidance. Vitamin K is a natural antagonist of warfarin. If vitamin K intake fluctuates significantly, the INR becomes unstable and unpredictable. Maintaining a consistent daily intake allows the provider to adjust the warfarin dose to that baseline.",[166,452,453,458,463],{},[169,454,455,457],{},[162,456,263],{}," — Complete avoidance is unnecessary and nutritionally harmful. Patients should eat a balanced diet with consistent vitamin K intake.",[169,459,460,462],{},[162,461,363],{}," — A vitamin K supplement would directly counteract the warfarin, reducing its effectiveness and increasing clotting risk.",[169,464,465,467],{},[162,466,275],{}," — Patients must never adjust medication doses independently. Dose changes are made by the provider based on INR monitoring.",[153,469,470,472],{},[162,471,281],{}," Pharmacological Therapies — Patient Education",[230,474,476],{"id":475},"question-6","Question 6",[153,478,479],{},"A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous IV infusion of regular insulin. The morning blood glucose is 62 mg/dL. What should the nurse do first?",[153,481,482],{},"A. Stop the insulin infusion and administer oral glucose\nB. Stop the insulin infusion and notify the provider\nC. Decrease the insulin infusion rate by half\nD. Administer 50% dextrose IV push",[241,484,485,489,493,496,513],{},[244,486,487],{},[162,488,248],{},[153,490,491],{},[162,492,447],{},[153,494,495],{},"A blood glucose of 62 mg/dL is hypoglycemic (below 70 mg/dL). With a continuous IV insulin infusion, the first action is to stop the infusion to prevent further glucose decline, then notify the provider for orders regarding glucose replacement and infusion adjustment.",[166,497,498,503,508],{},[169,499,500,502],{},[162,501,263],{}," — Oral glucose is not appropriate if the patient is receiving continuous IV insulin in a critical care setting. IV dextrose is the preferred route, but the provider must order it. Also, the patient's mental status must be assessed before giving anything orally.",[169,504,505,507],{},[162,506,363],{}," — Decreasing the rate is insufficient. The glucose is already below 70 — the infusion must be stopped.",[169,509,510,512],{},[162,511,275],{}," — D50 push may be indicated, but it requires a provider order. The nurse cannot independently administer D50 without an existing protocol or order.",[153,514,515,517],{},[162,516,281],{}," Pharmacological Therapies — Insulin Administration Safety",[223,519],{},[195,521,523],{"id":522},"safety-and-infection-control-questions","Safety and Infection Control Questions",[230,525,527],{"id":526},"question-7","Question 7",[153,529,530],{},"A nurse is caring for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which isolation precautions should the nurse implement?",[153,532,533],{},"A. Contact precautions with gown and gloves\nB. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask\nC. Airborne precautions with an N95 respirator\nD. Standard precautions only",[241,535,536,540,544,547,564],{},[244,537,538],{},[162,539,248],{},[153,541,542],{},[162,543,253],{},[153,545,546],{},"Pulmonary tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei (particles smaller than 5 microns) that remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions require a negative-pressure isolation room, an N95 respirator (or higher) for healthcare workers, and a surgical mask on the patient during transport.",[166,548,549,554,559],{},[169,550,551,553],{},[162,552,263],{}," — Contact precautions are for organisms spread by direct or indirect contact (MRSA, C. diff). TB is not contact-transmitted.",[169,555,556,558],{},[162,557,269],{}," — Droplet precautions (surgical mask) are for organisms spread by large droplets (influenza, meningococcal disease). TB droplet nuclei are smaller and remain airborne longer, requiring N95 protection.",[169,560,561,563],{},[162,562,275],{}," — Standard precautions alone are insufficient for any known airborne pathogen.",[153,565,566,568],{},[162,567,281],{}," Safety and Infection Control — Transmission-Based Precautions",[230,570,572],{"id":571},"question-8","Question 8",[153,574,575],{},"A nurse discovers that the wrong medication was administered to a patient. The patient is showing no adverse effects. What should the nurse do first?",[153,577,578],{},"A. Complete an incident report\nB. Assess the patient for adverse reactions\nC. Notify the healthcare provider\nD. Document the error in the patient's medical record",[241,580,581,585,589,592,609],{},[244,582,583],{},[162,584,248],{},[153,586,587],{},[162,588,447],{},[153,590,591],{},"Patient safety is always the first priority. Even though no adverse effects are currently observed, the nurse must perform a thorough assessment to establish a baseline and detect any emerging reactions. After assessment, the nurse notifies the provider, follows facility protocol for incident reporting, and documents appropriately.",[166,593,594,599,604],{},[169,595,596,598],{},[162,597,263],{}," — Incident reporting is necessary but comes after patient assessment and provider notification.",[169,600,601,603],{},[162,602,363],{}," — Provider notification is the second step, after confirming the patient's current status through assessment.",[169,605,606,608],{},[162,607,275],{}," — Documentation of the event is important but is not the first action.",[153,610,611,613],{},[162,612,281],{}," Safety and Infection Control — Medication Error Response",[223,615],{},[195,617,619],{"id":618},"physiological-integrity-questions","Physiological Integrity Questions",[230,621,623],{"id":622},"question-9","Question 9",[153,625,626],{},"A patient with a history of heart failure presents with crackles in the lung bases bilaterally, jugular vein distension (JVD), and 3+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. Which position should the nurse place the patient in?",[153,628,629],{},"A. Supine with legs elevated\nB. High Fowler's position\nC. Left lateral Sims position\nD. Trendelenburg position",[241,631,632,636,640,643,660],{},[244,633,634],{},[162,635,248],{},[153,637,638],{},[162,639,447],{},[153,641,642],{},"High Fowler's (head of bed elevated 60–90 degrees) reduces preload by pooling blood in the lower extremities and reduces the workload on the heart. It also facilitates lung expansion, improving oxygenation in a patient with pulmonary congestion.",[166,644,645,650,655],{},[169,646,647,649],{},[162,648,263],{}," — Supine with legs elevated increases venous return (preload), which worsens pulmonary congestion and fluid overload.",[169,651,652,654],{},[162,653,363],{}," — Left lateral Sims is used for rectal examination or enemas. It does not address the hemodynamic compromise.",[169,656,657,659],{},[162,658,275],{}," — Trendelenburg (head lower than feet) increases venous return, worsening both pulmonary edema and JVD.",[153,661,662,664],{},[162,663,281],{}," Physiological Integrity — Cardiac Positioning",[230,666,668],{"id":667},"question-10","Question 10",[153,670,671],{},"A nurse is monitoring a patient on continuous telemetry. The monitor shows a heart rate of 42 bpm with regular P waves followed by QRS complexes. The patient reports dizziness. Which cardiac rhythm does this most likely represent?",[153,673,674],{},"A. Atrial fibrillation with slow ventricular response\nB. Sinus bradycardia\nC. Third-degree heart block\nD. First-degree AV block",[241,676,677,681,685,688,705],{},[244,678,679],{},[162,680,248],{},[153,682,683],{},[162,684,447],{},[153,686,687],{},"Sinus bradycardia presents with a regular rhythm, each P wave followed by a QRS complex (1:1 conduction), and a rate below 60 bpm. At 42 bpm with symptoms (dizziness), this is symptomatic sinus bradycardia requiring assessment for underlying causes and possible atropine administration.",[166,689,690,695,700],{},[169,691,692,694],{},[162,693,263],{}," — Atrial fibrillation has an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves. This patient has regular P waves.",[169,696,697,699],{},[162,698,363],{}," — Third-degree heart block shows complete AV dissociation — P waves and QRS complexes fire independently with no relationship. This patient has 1:1 P-to-QRS conduction.",[169,701,702,704],{},[162,703,275],{}," — First-degree AV block has a prolonged PR interval (>0.20 seconds) but a normal heart rate (60–100 bpm).",[153,706,707,709],{},[162,708,281],{}," Physiological Integrity — Cardiac Rhythm Interpretation",[223,711],{},[195,713,715],{"id":714},"psychosocial-integrity-questions","Psychosocial Integrity Questions",[230,717,719],{"id":718},"question-11","Question 11",[153,721,722],{},"A patient diagnosed with terminal cancer tells the nurse, \"I know I'm dying, but I want to make sure my family is taken care of first.\" Which stage of grief does this statement reflect?",[153,724,725],{},"A. Denial\nB. Bargaining\nC. Acceptance\nD. Depression",[241,727,728,732,736,739,756],{},[244,729,730],{},[162,731,248],{},[153,733,734],{},[162,735,253],{},[153,737,738],{},"This patient acknowledges the terminal diagnosis (\"I know I'm dying\") and is focused on practical future planning for their family. This reflects acceptance — the patient has moved beyond denial, anger, bargaining, and depression to a place of acknowledging reality and taking constructive action.",[166,740,741,746,751],{},[169,742,743,745],{},[162,744,263],{}," — Denial would sound like \"This can't be right\" or \"There must be a mistake in the test results.\"",[169,747,748,750],{},[162,749,269],{}," — Bargaining involves conditional statements: \"If I can just make it to my daughter's wedding...\" The patient is not setting conditions.",[169,752,753,755],{},[162,754,275],{}," — Depression in grief presents as withdrawal, sadness, and disengagement. This patient is actively engaged and planning.",[153,757,758,760],{},[162,759,281],{}," Psychosocial Integrity — Grief and Loss",[230,762,764],{"id":763},"question-12","Question 12",[153,766,767],{},"A nurse is conducting a mental health assessment on a patient admitted after a suicide attempt. Which question is most important to ask?",[153,769,770],{},"A. \"Do you have a history of mental illness?\"\nB. \"Do you currently have a plan to harm yourself?\"\nC. \"What medications are you currently taking?\"\nD. \"Do you have a support system at home?\"",[241,772,773,777,781,784,801],{},[244,774,775],{},[162,776,248],{},[153,778,779],{},[162,780,447],{},[153,782,783],{},"Assessing for a current plan is the most critical component of a suicide risk assessment. A patient with a specific, actionable plan (method, means, timeline) is at significantly higher risk than one with passive ideation. This question directly determines the urgency of safety interventions.",[166,785,786,791,796],{},[169,787,788,790],{},[162,789,263],{}," — Mental health history is relevant background but does not assess current risk level.",[169,792,793,795],{},[162,794,363],{}," — Medication review is important for overall care but does not address imminent safety.",[169,797,798,800],{},[162,799,275],{}," — Support systems are protective factors worth assessing but are secondary to determining if the patient has an active plan.",[153,802,803,805],{},[162,804,281],{}," Psychosocial Integrity — Suicide Risk Assessment",[223,807],{},[195,809,811],{"id":810},"health-promotion-and-maintenance-questions","Health Promotion and Maintenance Questions",[230,813,815],{"id":814},"question-13","Question 13",[153,817,818],{},"A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to the parents of a 12-month-old. Which developmental milestone should the nurse expect the child to have achieved?",[153,820,821],{},"A. Speaking in 2–3 word sentences\nB. Walking independently\nC. Pulling to a standing position\nD. Riding a tricycle",[241,823,824,828,832,835,852],{},[244,825,826],{},[162,827,248],{},[153,829,830],{},[162,831,253],{},[153,833,834],{},"At 12 months, most children can pull themselves to a standing position using furniture (cruising). Walking independently typically develops between 12–15 months and may not be present at exactly 12 months. Pulling to stand is the more reliable 12-month milestone.",[166,836,837,842,847],{},[169,838,839,841],{},[162,840,263],{}," — Two to three word sentences develop around 24 months (2 years).",[169,843,844,846],{},[162,845,269],{}," — Independent walking is emerging at 12 months but is not reliably achieved until 12–15 months. Pulling to stand is the more accurate milestone.",[169,848,849,851],{},[162,850,275],{}," — Tricycle riding develops around 36 months (3 years).",[153,853,854,856],{},[162,855,281],{}," Health Promotion and Maintenance — Growth and Development",[223,858],{},[195,860,862],{"id":861},"basic-care-and-comfort-questions","Basic Care and Comfort Questions",[230,864,866],{"id":865},"question-14","Question 14",[153,868,869],{},"A patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to intermittent suction reports nausea. The nurse checks the NG tube and notes minimal drainage. Which action should the nurse take first?",[153,871,872],{},"A. Remove the NG tube and insert a new one\nB. Irrigate the NG tube with 30 mL of normal saline\nC. Increase the suction level to continuous\nD. Reposition the patient on the left side",[241,874,875,879,883,886,903],{},[244,876,877],{},[162,878,248],{},[153,880,881],{},[162,882,447],{},[153,884,885],{},"Minimal drainage with nausea suggests the NG tube may be clogged or displaced. The first intervention is to irrigate with 30 mL of normal saline to check for patency and restore function. If irrigation flows freely and drainage improves, the tube is patent. If resistance is met or no return is obtained, the tube position should be verified.",[166,887,888,893,898],{},[169,889,890,892],{},[162,891,263],{}," — Replacing the tube is invasive and premature. Troubleshoot the existing tube first.",[169,894,895,897],{},[162,896,363],{}," — Increasing suction without confirming patency could cause mucosal damage if the tube is against the stomach wall.",[169,899,900,902],{},[162,901,275],{}," — Repositioning may help but does not address the likely cause (tube obstruction).",[153,904,905,907],{},[162,906,281],{}," Basic Care and Comfort — Tube Management",[223,909],{},[195,911,913],{"id":912},"reduction-of-risk-potential-questions","Reduction of Risk Potential Questions",[230,915,917],{"id":916},"question-15","Question 15",[153,919,920],{},"A nurse is reviewing lab results for a patient on lithium therapy. The lithium level is 1.8 mEq/L (therapeutic range: 0.6–1.2 mEq/L). Which assessment finding would the nurse expect?",[153,922,923],{},"A. Bradycardia and hypotension\nB. Coarse tremors and vomiting\nC. Euphoria and rapid speech\nD. Drowsiness and dry mouth",[241,925,926,930,934,937,954],{},[244,927,928],{},[162,929,248],{},[153,931,932],{},[162,933,447],{},[153,935,936],{},"A lithium level of 1.8 mEq/L is toxic (above the therapeutic ceiling of 1.2 mEq/L). Early-to-moderate lithium toxicity presents with coarse hand tremors (vs. fine tremors at therapeutic levels), persistent vomiting, diarrhea, muscle weakness, and ataxia. Severe toxicity (above 2.5 mEq/L) can cause seizures, coma, and renal failure.",[166,938,939,944,949],{},[169,940,941,943],{},[162,942,263],{}," — Bradycardia and hypotension can occur in severe toxicity but are not the primary presenting signs at 1.8 mEq/L.",[169,945,946,948],{},[162,947,363],{}," — Euphoria and rapid speech are symptoms of mania — the condition lithium treats. These would indicate the medication is not working, not that levels are toxic.",[169,950,951,953],{},[162,952,275],{}," — Drowsiness and dry mouth are common side effects at therapeutic levels, not specific to toxicity.",[153,955,956,958],{},[162,957,281],{}," Reduction of Risk Potential — Lab Value Interpretation",[223,960],{},[195,962,964],{"id":963},"what-to-do-after-these-questions","What to Do After These Questions",[153,966,967,968,971,972,975],{},"If you scored ",[162,969,970],{},"70%+ correct",", you're building strong clinical reasoning. Move to a ",[173,973,974],{"href":191},"full-length NCLEX practice test"," to test under timed, exam-like conditions.",[153,977,967,978,981,982,986],{},[162,979,980],{},"below 60%",", focus on the categories where you missed the most questions. Our ",[173,983,985],{"href":984},"/nclex-study-plan","NCLEX study plan"," provides a week-by-week schedule to strengthen weak areas.",[195,988,990],{"id":989},"more-nclex-resources","More NCLEX Resources",[166,992,993,1000,1006,1013,1020],{},[169,994,995,999],{},[173,996,998],{"href":997},"/nclex-study-guide","NCLEX Study Guide"," — your complete preparation roadmap",[169,1001,1002,1005],{},[173,1003,1004],{"href":191},"NCLEX Practice Test"," — full-length simulated exam with 75 questions",[169,1007,1008,1012],{},[173,1009,1011],{"href":1010},"/nclex-pn-practice-questions","NCLEX-PN Practice Questions"," — 100+ questions for LPN/LVN candidates",[169,1014,1015,1019],{},[173,1016,1018],{"href":1017},"/ngn-nclex-practice-questions","NGN Practice Questions"," — clinical judgment prep with new format types",[169,1021,1022,1026],{},[173,1023,1025],{"href":1024},"/best-nclex-prep","Best NCLEX Prep Courses"," — compare UWorld, Archer, Kaplan, and more",[153,1028,1029,1030],{},"Ready for more practice? ",[173,1031,1034],{"href":1032,"rel":1033},"https://app.allqbanks.com",[177],"Start a free NCLEX question bank on AllQbanks →",[223,1036],{},[195,1038,1040],{"id":1039},"frequently-asked-questions","Frequently Asked Questions",[230,1042,1044],{"id":1043},"are-these-practice-questions-representative-of-the-real-nclex","Are these practice questions representative of the real NCLEX?",[153,1046,1047],{},"Yes. These questions are written to match the difficulty, format, and clinical reasoning patterns of the actual NCLEX-RN. They cover all 8 client needs categories with the same question styles (single-answer MCQ, SATA, and priority/delegation scenarios).",[230,1049,1051],{"id":1050},"how-many-practice-questions-should-i-do-before-the-nclex","How many practice questions should I do before the NCLEX?",[153,1053,1054],{},"Most first-time passers complete 1,500–3,000 questions during their preparation. Start with these free questions to build a foundation, then transition to a dedicated QBank (UWorld, Archer, or AllQbanks) for systematic practice with performance tracking.",[230,1056,1058],{"id":1057},"can-i-use-these-questions-for-the-nclex-pn","Can I use these questions for the NCLEX-PN?",[153,1060,1061,1062,1065],{},"Some questions overlap (pharmacology, basic care), but the NCLEX-PN tests at a different clinical complexity level. For PN-specific practice, use our ",[173,1063,1064],{"href":1010},"NCLEX-PN practice questions",".",[230,1067,1069],{"id":1068},"why-are-rationales-so-important","Why are rationales so important?",[153,1071,1072],{},"The NCLEX doesn't test recall — it tests reasoning. Reading rationales teaches you the decision framework: how to identify the priority, apply the nursing process, and eliminate distractors. Students who read rationales for every question (correct and incorrect) improve faster than those who just check their answers.",{"title":11,"searchDepth":12,"depth":12,"links":1074},[1075,1076,1082,1087,1091,1095,1099,1102,1105,1108,1109,1110],{"id":197,"depth":12,"text":198},{"id":227,"depth":12,"text":228,"children":1077},[1078,1080,1081],{"id":232,"depth":1079,"text":233},3,{"id":285,"depth":1079,"text":286},{"id":330,"depth":1079,"text":331},{"id":379,"depth":12,"text":380,"children":1083},[1084,1085,1086],{"id":383,"depth":1079,"text":384},{"id":429,"depth":1079,"text":430},{"id":475,"depth":1079,"text":476},{"id":522,"depth":12,"text":523,"children":1088},[1089,1090],{"id":526,"depth":1079,"text":527},{"id":571,"depth":1079,"text":572},{"id":618,"depth":12,"text":619,"children":1092},[1093,1094],{"id":622,"depth":1079,"text":623},{"id":667,"depth":1079,"text":668},{"id":714,"depth":12,"text":715,"children":1096},[1097,1098],{"id":718,"depth":1079,"text":719},{"id":763,"depth":1079,"text":764},{"id":810,"depth":12,"text":811,"children":1100},[1101],{"id":814,"depth":1079,"text":815},{"id":861,"depth":12,"text":862,"children":1103},[1104],{"id":865,"depth":1079,"text":866},{"id":912,"depth":12,"text":913,"children":1106},[1107],{"id":916,"depth":1079,"text":917},{"id":963,"depth":12,"text":964},{"id":989,"depth":12,"text":990},{"id":1039,"depth":12,"text":1040,"children":1111},[1112,1113,1114,1115],{"id":1043,"depth":1079,"text":1044},{"id":1050,"depth":1079,"text":1051},{"id":1057,"depth":1079,"text":1058},{"id":1068,"depth":1079,"text":1069},[92],"2026-07-31T12:40:00Z","Free NCLEX-RN practice questions organized by client needs category. Each question includes detailed rationales explaining correct and incorrect answers.","/img/free-nclex-practice-questions.png","Collection of free NCLEX-RN practice questions with answer rationales",{"cluster":1122,"cluster_role":1123,"cluster_group":1124},"nclex-study-guide","spoke","practice-questions","/free-nclex-practice-questions",{"title":147,"description":1118},{"loc":1125,"lastmod":1117},"content/free-nclex-practice-questions",null,"gwAVXJxaDSOfd12M0T4Ap2Zs8_valKsCwN74ZXiC0O0",[1132,1142],{"title":1133,"path":1134,"stem":1135,"date":1136,"date_mod":1137,"description":1138,"author":1139,"featured_image":1140,"categories":1141,"children":-1},"Free MCCQE Practice Questions: Sample MCQs","/free-mccqe-practice-questions","content/free-mccqe-practice-questions","2026-02-18T09:00:00","2026-06-24T00:00:00","Access free MCCQE Part 1 practice questions with detailed explanations. Test your knowledge on cardiology, ethics, and public health in the new MCQ format.","Dr. Leila Haddad","/img/free-mccqe-practice-questions.webp",[58],{"title":1143,"path":1144,"stem":1145,"date":1146,"date_mod":1137,"description":1147,"author":1139,"featured_image":1148,"categories":1149,"children":-1},"How Hard Is the MCCQE? Exam Difficulty & Pass Rates","/how-hard-is-the-mccqe-exam","content/how-hard-is-the-mccqe-exam","2026-05-03T09:00:00","CMGs pass at 94%, IMGs at 58%. Learn what makes the MCCQE Part 1 difficult, from Canadian-specific topics to time pressure and question breadth.","/img/how_hard_mccqe.webp",[58],1785526310629]