NCLEX-PN Practice Questions: Free LPN Exam Prep [2026]

Correct Answer: C

LPNs can collect data — vital signs, health history, focused observations — but the initial comprehensive assessment and nursing diagnosis are RN-scope functions. The LPN contributes to the assessment process by gathering data and reporting it, while the RN interprets findings and establishes the plan of care.

• A — "Performing the assessment" implies an independent initial nursing assessment, which exceeds LPN scope. Data collection is the appropriate role.
• B — Blanket refusal is incorrect. LPNs participate in the assessment process through data collection.
• D — Asking for reassignment is unnecessary when the LPN can appropriately contribute through data collection.

Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment — Coordinated Care

Correct Answer: B

Discussing identifiable patient health information in public areas is a HIPAA violation. The LPN should immediately intervene by reminding the assistants that patient information must not be discussed outside of clinical care settings. The LPN should then follow facility policy for reporting the incident (typically an incident report to the supervisor).

• A — Joining the conversation perpetuates the HIPAA violation.
• C — Reporting to the state board is disproportionate to the situation. This is handled at the facility level.
• D — HIPAA violations are documented in incident reports, not the patient's medical record.

Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment — Confidentiality

Correct Answer: C

C. diff is transmitted through contact with spores on surfaces, equipment, or hands. Contact precautions require a gown and gloves. An important additional note: hand hygiene for C. diff requires soap and water — alcohol-based hand rubs do not kill C. diff spores.

• A — N95 respirators are for airborne precautions (TB, measles, varicella). C. diff is not airborne.
• B — A surgical mask is for droplet precautions. C. diff is not droplet-transmitted, and gloves alone are insufficient without a gown.
• D — Adding a surgical mask is unnecessary for contact precautions unless the patient is also on droplet precautions for a concurrent condition.

Category: Safety and Infection Control — Transmission-Based Precautions

Correct Answer: B

Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) significantly enhances nonheme iron absorption in the gut. Orange juice is rich in vitamin C and is the classic recommendation to pair with iron-rich foods or supplements. The vitamin C converts ferric iron to the more absorbable ferrous form.

• A — Calcium in milk inhibits iron absorption. Dairy products should be consumed separately from iron-rich meals.
• C — Coffee contains tannins that bind to iron and reduce absorption by up to 60%. Tea has the same effect.
• D — Antacids raise gastric pH, which impairs iron absorption. Iron is best absorbed in an acidic environment.

Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance — Nutrition

Correct Answer: B

The CDC's Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends PCV20 (Prevnar 20) as a single dose for all adults aged 65 and older who have not previously received a pneumococcal conjugate vaccine. This replaces the previous two-dose series of PCV13 + PPSV23.

• A — Influenza and pneumococcal vaccines protect against different pathogens. One does not replace the other.
• C — Pneumococcal vaccine is recommended for all adults 65+ regardless of chronic conditions. Certain high-risk groups (immunocompromised, chronic lung/heart/liver disease) are recommended to receive it earlier (ages 19–64).
• D — The recommendation begins at age 65, not 75.

Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance — Immunizations

Correct Answer: C

This response uses reflection (restating the patient's feelings) and open-ended questioning to encourage further expression. It validates the patient's experience without minimizing it and opens the door for deeper assessment of the patient's emotional and functional status.

• A — This is advice-giving with an emotional appeal. It dismisses the patient's feelings and imposes the nurse's expectations.
• B — This is a cliché and a false reassurance that minimizes the patient's grief. "It will get better" is not therapeutic.
• D — Offering a chaplain referral may be appropriate later, but it does not address the patient's immediate emotional expression. Assess first, then intervene.

Category: Psychosocial Integrity — Therapeutic Communication

Correct Answer: B

Early ambulation is the primary intervention for post-operative ileus and abdominal distension. Walking stimulates peristalsis and helps restore normal bowel function. It is the safest and most effective first intervention.

• A — Laxatives may be considered later if ambulation and other conservative measures fail, but they are not the first intervention for post-operative ileus.
• C — A rectal tube is an invasive intervention reserved for significant gaseous distension unresponsive to other measures.
• D — Large-volume fluid intake on a post-operative patient with minimal bowel activity could worsen distension and increase nausea.

Category: Physiological Integrity — Basic Care and Comfort

Correct Answer: B

Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes excretion of potassium along with sodium and water. The most common and clinically significant electrolyte imbalance is hypokalemia (low potassium). Signs include muscle weakness, fatigue, leg cramps, and cardiac arrhythmias.

• A — Furosemide causes potassium loss, not retention. Hyperkalemia is associated with potassium-sparing diuretics (spironolactone, triamterene).
• C — Furosemide causes sodium loss (hyponatremia), not retention (hypernatremia).
• D — Furosemide increases calcium excretion, potentially causing hypocalcemia, not hypercalcemia.

Category: Physiological Integrity — Pharmacological Therapies