
Want to know what the MCCQE Part 1 actually feels like? The best way is to answer real-format questions.
Below you'll find 10 free MCCQE-style practice questions covering a mix of high-yield clinical topics — including Canadian ethics and public health content that distinguishes the MCCQE from other medical licensing exams.
Each question includes a detailed explanation of the correct answer. Time yourself: 90 seconds per question to match the 2026 exam pace.
Practice Questions
Question 1: Cardiology
A 62-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm for the past 45 minutes. He is diaphoretic and nauseous. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Troponin is pending. He has no known drug allergies.
What is the most appropriate immediate management?
A) Start IV heparin and wait for troponin results before further intervention
B) Administer aspirin, clopidogrel, and arrange for emergent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
C) Order a CT angiogram to rule out aortic dissection before treatment
D) Administer thrombolytics immediately
E) Begin metoprolol and admit for serial troponin monitoring
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B
This is an inferior STEMI (ST-elevation in II, III, aVF). The standard of care is dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor) and emergent PCI when available within 90 minutes of first medical contact. This is consistent with Canadian Cardiovascular Society (CCS) guidelines.
- A is incorrect: Waiting for troponins delays treatment. STEMI is diagnosed by ECG, not troponin
- C is incorrect: While aortic dissection should be considered, the presentation (ST-elevation, typical ACS history) makes STEMI far more likely. CT angio would dangerously delay reperfusion
- D is partially correct: Thrombolytics are appropriate if PCI is unavailable within 120 minutes, but PCI is preferred when available
- E is incorrect: Serial troponin monitoring is appropriate for NSTEMI, not STEMI. Beta-blockers should not be given acutely in potential cardiogenic shock
Question 2: Canadian Medical Ethics — MAID
A 72-year-old woman with metastatic pancreatic cancer asks you about Medical Assistance in Dying (MAID). She is cognitively intact, has been informed of all treatment options including palliative care, and her suffering is intolerable. Her cancer is incurable.
Which of the following is a requirement under Canadian MAID legislation?
A) The patient must be at least 75 years old
B) Two independent physicians or nurse practitioners must assess eligibility
C) The patient's family must consent to the procedure
D) The patient must be in the final 30 days of life
E) A psychiatric assessment is mandatory for all MAID requests
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B
Under Canada's MAID legislation (Bill C-14, amended by Bill C-7 in 2021), two independent physicians or nurse practitioners must assess the patient's eligibility. This is a safeguard to ensure the request is voluntary, informed, and meets all legal criteria.
- A is incorrect: There is no minimum age of 75. The patient must be 18 years or older
- C is incorrect: Family consent is not required. MAID is the patient's autonomous decision. Family members have no legal authority to consent or refuse on the patient's behalf
- D is incorrect: Since Bill C-7 (2021), natural death does not need to be "reasonably foreseeable." Patients with serious and incurable conditions can be eligible even if death is not imminent
- E is incorrect: Psychiatric assessment is not mandatory for all requests. It may be recommended if there are concerns about capacity or if the condition is primarily mental illness (which has its own criteria)
Why this matters for the MCCQE: Canadian medical ethics questions are high-yield and frequently tested. IMGs often struggle here because MAID doesn't exist in most other countries. See our IMG guide for more Canadian-specific study priorities.
Question 3: Pediatrics
A 4-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-baby visit. The mother reports that the baby can hold their head up, smiles socially, and coos but cannot yet roll over or sit unsupported.
Which developmental milestone should this infant be able to achieve at this age?
A) Pull to stand
B) Transfer objects hand to hand
C) Reach for and grasp objects
D) Walk with support
E) Say "mama" and "dada" specifically
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C
At 4 months, infants should be able to reach for and grasp objects placed in front of them. This is a fine motor milestone expected at 3–4 months.
- A is incorrect: Pull to stand typically occurs at 9–10 months
- B is incorrect: Hand-to-hand transfer is a 6–7 month milestone
- D is incorrect: Walking with support (cruising) typically occurs at 9–12 months
- E is incorrect: Specific "mama/dada" use typically occurs at 10–12 months
High-yield tip: The MCCQE tests developmental milestones frequently. Know the major milestones at 2, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, and 24 months.
Question 4: Public Health — Epidemiology
A new screening test for colorectal cancer has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 80%. In a population where the prevalence of colorectal cancer is 5%, a patient tests positive.
What is the approximate positive predictive value (PPV) of this test?
A) 5%
B) 19%
C) 45%
D) 80%
E) 90%
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B
Using Bayes' theorem or a 2×2 table:
- In a population of 1,000: 50 have cancer, 950 do not
- True positives: 50 × 0.90 = 45
- False positives: 950 × 0.20 = 190
- PPV = 45 / (45 + 190) = 45/235 ≈ 19%
This demonstrates a critical concept: even with good sensitivity and specificity, PPV is low when prevalence is low. This is why screening programs target high-risk populations.
- D (80%) is the specificity, not the PPV — a common trap
- E (90%) is the sensitivity, not the PPV
Why this matters: Biostatistics and epidemiology questions appear on every MCCQE Part 1. Know sensitivity, specificity, PPV, NPV, NNT, and relative/absolute risk reduction.
Question 5: Psychiatry
A 35-year-old woman presents with depressed mood, loss of interest in activities, insomnia, poor concentration, and fatigue for the past 3 weeks. She denies suicidal ideation. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications.
What is the most appropriate initial management?
A) Start an SSRI immediately and follow up in 4 weeks
B) Refer immediately to a psychiatrist
C) Complete a thorough assessment including ruling out medical causes, then discuss treatment options including psychotherapy and pharmacotherapy
D) Start a benzodiazepine for sleep and reassess in 2 weeks
E) Recommend exercise and lifestyle changes only
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C
Before initiating treatment for depression, you must rule out medical causes (hypothyroidism, anemia, substance use, medication side effects) and perform a comprehensive psychiatric assessment. The Canadian Network for Mood and Anxiety Treatments (CANMAT) guidelines recommend discussing treatment options with the patient, which include psychotherapy, pharmacotherapy, or both.
- A is incorrect: Starting medication before completing assessment and ruling out medical causes is premature
- B is incorrect: Mild to moderate depression should be managed in primary care. Psychiatry referral is appropriate for severe, treatment-resistant, or complex cases
- D is incorrect: Benzodiazepines are not first-line for depression and carry dependence risk
- E is incorrect: While lifestyle modifications are beneficial adjuncts, relying on them alone for a patient meeting criteria for major depressive episode (≥2 weeks, ≥5 symptoms) is inadequate
MCCQE approach: The exam rewards thorough, stepwise clinical reasoning. "Complete the assessment first" is often the correct answer when a question presents a new, undiagnosed patient.
Question 6: OB/GYN
A 28-year-old G1P0 woman at 12 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. She has no significant medical history. Her blood type is A-negative.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step regarding her Rh status?
A) Administer Rh immunoglobulin (RhIG) now at 12 weeks
B) Check indirect Coombs test and plan RhIG at 28 weeks if antibody screen is negative
C) No intervention needed until delivery
D) Administer RhIG only if the father is Rh-positive
E) Order amniocentesis to determine fetal blood type
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B
For Rh-negative pregnant patients, Canadian guidelines (SOGC — Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada) recommend:
- Antibody screening (indirect Coombs test) at the first prenatal visit
- Routine RhIG prophylaxis at 28 weeks if the antibody screen is negative
- Postpartum RhIG within 72 hours if the newborn is Rh-positive
- A is incorrect: RhIG is not given at 12 weeks routinely — it's given at 28 weeks for prophylaxis
- C is incorrect: Waiting until delivery misses the opportunity for antepartum prophylaxis
- D is incorrect: While knowing the father's Rh status is helpful, RhIG is recommended regardless because paternity cannot always be confirmed
- E is incorrect: Amniocentesis is invasive and not indicated for routine blood type determination
Question 7: Canadian Ethics — Capacity
A 78-year-old man with early-stage dementia is admitted for a hip fracture. He requires surgery. When asked about the procedure, he demonstrates understanding of his condition, the proposed surgery, alternatives, and potential risks. His daughter insists he lacks capacity to consent and demands to make decisions on his behalf.
What is the most appropriate action?
A) Defer to the daughter's wishes as she is the next of kin
B) Request a formal psychiatric consultation to assess capacity
C) Accept the patient's own consent as he demonstrates capacity for this decision
D) Contact the hospital ethics committee before proceeding
E) Delay surgery until the patient's capacity can be formally assessed by a judge
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C
The patient demonstrates all four elements of capacity: understanding, appreciation, reasoning, and expressing a choice. A diagnosis of dementia does not automatically negate capacity. Capacity is decision-specific and time-specific — a patient may lack capacity for complex financial decisions but retain capacity for a specific medical decision.
- A is incorrect: Next of kin cannot override a capable patient's autonomy. Substitute decision-making only applies when the patient lacks capacity
- B is incorrect: There is no indication for a psychiatric consultation when the patient clearly demonstrates capacity
- D is incorrect: Ethics committees are for complex contested cases, not straightforward capacity assessments
- E is incorrect: Judicial assessment is unnecessary and delaying surgery for a hip fracture increases morbidity and mortality
Key principle for MCCQE: Capacity is always presumed unless demonstrated otherwise. The burden of proof is on those claiming incapacity, not on the patient to prove it.
Question 8: Respirology
A 55-year-old male smoker (30 pack-years) presents with progressive dyspnea and productive cough for the past 6 months. Spirometry shows FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.62 and FEV1 of 55% predicted, with minimal bronchodilator reversibility.
What is the most likely diagnosis and initial pharmacological management?
A) Asthma — inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) monotherapy
B) COPD — long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) or long-acting beta-agonist (LABA)
C) Pulmonary fibrosis — pirfenidone
D) COPD — systemic corticosteroids
E) Bronchiectasis — long-term azithromycin
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: B
This presentation — progressive dyspnea in a long-term smoker with obstructive spirometry (FEV1/FVC < 0.70) and minimal reversibility — is classic COPD (GOLD stage 2, moderate). Canadian Thoracic Society guidelines recommend initial pharmacotherapy with a LAMA or LABA monotherapy for moderate COPD.
- A is incorrect: Asthma typically shows significant bronchodilator reversibility. ICS monotherapy is not first-line for COPD
- C is incorrect: Pulmonary fibrosis shows restrictive (not obstructive) spirometry pattern
- D is incorrect: Systemic corticosteroids are for acute exacerbations, not maintenance therapy
- E is incorrect: While COPD and bronchiectasis can coexist, the presentation and spirometry are more consistent with COPD. Long-term azithromycin is reserved for frequent exacerbators
Question 9: Population Health
You are a family physician in a rural Canadian community. You notice an increasing number of adolescent patients presenting with mental health concerns, substance use, and school absenteeism. Several come from families affected by unemployment after a local factory closure.
Which of the following best describes the underlying factor contributing to these presentations?
A) Individual genetic vulnerability to mental illness
B) Poor parenting practices in the community
C) Social determinants of health, particularly economic instability
D) Inadequate school mental health programs
E) Lack of access to psychiatric medications
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C
The social determinants of health — including income, employment, education, and social support — are the primary drivers of health outcomes at the population level. The factory closure creating economic instability affects multiple families simultaneously, creating a community-wide pattern rather than individual cases.
- A is incorrect: While genetics play a role in individual vulnerability, an increase across multiple unrelated adolescents points to environmental/social factors
- B is incorrect: Blaming individual families ignores the structural cause (economic instability) affecting the entire community
- D is incorrect: School programs may help but don't address the root cause
- E is incorrect: Medication access is a downstream issue. The question asks about the underlying factor
MCCQE relevance: Population health and social determinants are heavily tested. Think upstream — the MCCQE expects you to identify structural causes, not just individual treatment plans.
Question 10: Surgery / Emergency
A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after a motorcycle collision. He is conscious but confused. Vital signs: HR 120, BP 85/50, RR 28, SpO2 94%. Examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the left side, tracheal deviation to the right, and distended neck veins.
What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?
A) Chest X-ray to confirm diagnosis
B) CT scan of the chest
C) Needle decompression of the left chest at the second intercostal space, midclavicular line
D) Intubation and mechanical ventilation
E) IV fluid bolus and blood type and crossmatch
Answer & Explanation
Correct Answer: C
This is a tension pneumothorax, a clinical diagnosis requiring immediate intervention. The triad of decreased breath sounds, tracheal deviation away from the affected side, and hemodynamic instability (tachycardia, hypotension, JVD) is classic.
Needle decompression at the 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line (or 4th/5th intercostal space, anterior axillary line) is the life-saving intervention. This is followed by chest tube insertion.
- A and B are incorrect: Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis. Imaging delays treatment in a patient who may arrest imminently
- D is incorrect: Positive pressure ventilation before decompression will worsen the tension pneumothorax
- E is incorrect: While resuscitation is important, the primary problem is obstructive shock from the pneumothorax, not hypovolemia. Fluids alone won't fix the underlying cause
How Did You Score?
| Score | What It Means |
|---|---|
| 9–10 | Excellent — you're well-prepared for MCCQE-level questions |
| 7–8 | Good foundation — focus on areas where you hesitated |
| 5–6 | Average — structured study plan needed, see our 3-month guide |
| Below 5 | Significant gaps — consider a longer preparation timeline |
These 10 questions represent a tiny fraction of what the MCCQE Part 1 covers. The actual exam has 230 questions across every clinical domain, with emphasis on clinical reasoning and Canadian-specific content.
Ready for More Practice?
These sample questions give you a taste of the format, but passing the MCCQE Part 1 requires 2,500–3,500+ practice questions over your preparation period. For a full comparison of available question banks, see our Best MCCQE Qbanks 2026 guide.
Frequently Asked Questions
Are these questions representative of the actual MCCQE Part 1?
These questions follow the single best answer MCQ format used in the 2026 MCCQE Part 1. They cover a representative mix of clinical and non-clinical topics. However, actual exam questions may include longer clinical vignettes and more nuanced answer options.
How many practice questions should I do before the MCCQE?
Most successful candidates complete 2,500–3,500 practice questions during their preparation. This provides adequate exposure to the breadth of MCC objectives. See our study plan for how to structure your question practice over a 3-month timeline.
Where can I find more free MCCQE practice questions?
The MCC offers an official practice exam with 55 questions. Beyond that, free resources are limited in both quantity and quality. Comprehensive question banks provide thousands of questions with detailed explanations and performance tracking.
Related Reading
Related Posts
resourcesDHA Exam Preparation Guide: How to Pass the Dubai Health Authority Exam (2026)
Complete DHA exam preparation guide for 2026. Covers Dubai Health Authority licensing, Prometric exam format, eligibility, DataFlow verification, study strategies, and pass rates for healthcare professionals.
AllQbanks •
Feb 18, 2026
resourcestipsHow I Passed the MCCQE Part 1 After Failing Twice: An IMG's 3-Month Study Strategy
An IMG shares how she failed the MCCQE Part 1 twice before passing on her third attempt using a focused 3-month study plan. Breakdown of her exact daily routine, resources, and mistakes to avoid.
AllQbanks •
Feb 16, 2026

